Certified Sexual Assault Nurse Examiner-Pediatric (SANE-P) Practice Exam

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• Anogenital injury can be present following which type of sexual activity?
• Which domain is included under the forensic nursing professional performance standards?
• Photography timing: documenting redness can be repeated later to assess changes.
• Which of the following is listed as an accommodation category for pediatric exams?
• Plan B is not effective once which event has begun?
• For HIV serologic testing in at-risk patients, when should testing be repeated?
• In pediatric forensic assessment, puberty milestones are important because they help determine what?
• People accompanying the patient may not be aware of which aspect of the patient?
• Mandatory reporting applies when disclosure involves which of the following?
• How is objective data defined in the context of patient history?
• Which statement accurately describes the difference between FGM Type IIIA and Type IIIB?
• In infants and children with HSV, clinicians should consider which possibility?
• Which term is described as 'acting and good faith'?
• In pediatric assent, which types of cues are included?
• If there is doubt about consent and assent in a pediatric patient, what should guide the decision?
• Why is testing performed before initiating STI treatment?
• Which statement best describes the HIV transmission risk from oral-genital contact?
• Infections of gonorrhea in infants and children are most commonly presented as
• If a patient is too upset to discuss or undecided about starting nPEP, what is recommended?
• Who cannot serve as an interpreter in SANE practice?
• Which two forms of justice are described?
• ALS fluorescence on open skin areas is most likely due to what source?
• FGM Type IIIB is defined by which finding?
• HITECH addresses confidentiality concerns in transmission of
• When responding to a subpoena in a pediatric SA case, whom should be notified about the subpoena?
• Which statement best describes the SART collaborative processes?
• What is the rationale for using a separate swab for each hand when collecting fingernail evidence?
• What is a priority action for SANE in cases of sexual assault?
• Hanging strangulation occurs via suspension using which mechanism?
• Which example best illustrates a leading question?
• The organism abbreviated as CT is best described as which of the following?
• CCR stands for Coordinated Community Response. What is its purpose?
• Which statement illustrates conflicting consent statutes for minors regarding STI testing and forensic exams?
• Doxycycline is used to treat which infection?
• In evaluation following strangulation, optimize discharge planning by ensuring which of the following is included?
• HIV serologic testing intervals: which statement is true?
• Petechiae on the hard or soft palate are associated with which mechanism?
• Trichomonas infection is described as which of the following?
• What effect does saliva have on HIV infectivity?
• What is the risk of contracting bacterial vaginosis through sexual assault?
• What is the primary purpose of documenting surroundings?
• What happens to erythema when pressure is applied?
• Which of the following are evidentiary findings to photograph?
• Which domain focuses on efficient use of resources?
• Which term describes pleading guilty to a lesser crime in exchange for concession?
• Which of the following are accommodations for exams (five categories)?
• A complete medical history should include which of the following?
• Which FGM type would be described by partial removal of clitoral glans and labia minora?
• Flagyl should not be given within how many hours of drinking?
• Which statement about early latent syphilis is true?
• How should a clinician approach asking a child about their relationship to the perpetrator?
• In a pediatric forensic evaluation, the forensic history is primarily collected to support which objective?
• A fetal risk associated with nPEP during pregnancy is which of the following?
• Which statement best describes primary prevention?
• Secondary syphilis typically presents with systemic signs such as fever, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy after how long following the resolution of the chancre?
• Which of the following does DC most commonly stand for in the context of strangulation assessment and safety planning?
• In DFSA investigations, emesis is collected for which type of analysis?
• Active bleeding head laceration elevates risk for what injury priority?
• For Chlamydia testing, which sites are appropriate to sample?
• Which statement best defines hearsay?
• Anoscope and prepubescent: which statement is true?
• A painless lesion at the site of infection is characteristic of which stage of syphilis?
• Subconjunctival hemorrhages in a pediatric examination are most concerning for which scenario?
• FGM Type IIIA is defined by which finding?
• To avoid dilution of samples, how many swabs should be collected from each area?
• When documenting in pediatric forensic contexts, what history should always be included, even if not related to the current situation?
• Which describes FGM Type II C?
• Why is it important to document the feelings expressed by the patient during the event?
• Which type of review in SANE practice is external and involves an interdisciplinary team discussing cases at a systems level?
• Which of the following is a common physical sign associated with strangulation as listed?
• Petechiae are best described as
• Bite wounds on oval or semilunar abrasions may show which sign?
• Benzo-related symptoms may include which of the following?
• Which of the following is NOT a principle of Trauma-Informed Care?
• Lacking mental capacity refers to what?
• Bite wounds appear as
• Which description corresponds to FGM Type III?
• Which step is essential to confirm the presence of drugs in a suspected DFSA case?
• Which anatomical area is not a typical target for vaginal evidence collection?
• Which set of factors are considered to impact trauma?
• Implementation includes coordination of care and health teaching and health promotion.
• Which infection has a 19% transmission risk through sexual assault?
• Which of the following best describes gonorrhea symptoms?
• Which statement correctly describes Tanner stage V?
• Typical SA symptoms in children are which of the following?
• In the evaluation phase, what is the primary purpose?
• Which item is included among the six principles of Trauma-Informed Care?
• Billing practices determined by
• Which item assesses whether the patient's decision making is stable over time?
• Which criterion is part of Daubert criteria: Testimony is based on sufficient facts
• VAWA mandates confidentiality requirements for agencies receiving funding
• Deposition
• The most common sexually transmitted infection worldwide is
• Which sites are swabbed for oral swabs?
• Which statement about documenting pain information is true?
• Which option describes an objection in court?
• Sedation is used only for what purpose?
• LE images after SA are considered part of the medical forensic examination (FE).
• What is the ideal timeframe for blood collection and transfer from collection?
• Describing medical forensic history to the court can help admit patient statements under which concept
• Which of the following is a first-line emergency contraception option?
• In females, gonorrhea commonly presents with which symptom?
• When documenting pain during examination, what context should be provided?
• When should photos be collected in a sexual assault examination?
• Fatality from strangulation can occur in approximately how many minutes?
• Before starting nPEP, what test is particularly important for females?
• Which stage is described as industry versus inferiority?
• What does the term apposition mean?
• Which of the following is not listed as a PTSD symptom category in the material?
• The written narrative of the forensic interview should include which elements?
• During genital assessment in pediatric DFSA evaluation, which parties should not be present?
• What color top tube is used for DFSA blood collection?
• Which is listed as a noncovered entity under HIPAA?
• Preschool years correspond to which age range?
• Which factors influence a trauma response?
• Syphilis treatment is with which antibiotic?
• Which stage is described as Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt?
• Which assessment practice is recommended when evaluating bruising in a SANE context?
• For gonorrhea testing in a SANE exam, NAAT samples should be collected from which sites?
• What is the most common source of HIV transmission?
• For dried or moist secretions, what swab technique is recommended?
• Photos can include items not found on patient's body (such as clothing)?
• Photographs related to a sexual assault examination should be stored in the patient's chart.
• Prevent revictimization by being empathetic and using reflective listening. Which approach is recommended?
• When asking a child about their relationship to the perpetrator, they may describe a relationship that is not accurate. Which option best reflects this?
• What is the adult antibiotic regimen for chlamydia prevention after genital-to-genital contact?
• When assessing for pregnancy, which topic should the SANE ask about?
• Which domain emphasizes culturally congruent practice?
• Which is an example of documentary evidence?
• FTA-ABS distinguishes between which two categories?
• How is indirect evidence defined?
• In evidence of a Drug-Facilitated Sexual Assault (DFSA), what should be arranged to confirm drugs in the system?
• Only provide FU instructions on DC paperwork if
• Which option preserves the medication order prioritization for exposure management: nPEP first?
• What is the maximum volume for a DFSA urine sample?
• Tanner stage V in boys is best described as
• If a survivor requests restricted reporting, clinicians should respond by explaining options and respecting the request.
• EMTALA requires that emergency departments stabilize and treat patients regardless of
• Which option is NOT included in the vaginal vault?
• Which statement best describes the role of considering pubertal changes and anatomical variations during a pediatric SANE assessment?
• Ligature strangulation
• When adolescents are brought to an exam by guardians, they may be influenced by which aspect of the adult?
• Why are hearsay statements made to a SANE considered reliable?
• For a patient with gender reassignment who has a surgical vagina, which STD care concept is particularly important due to vaginal fragility?
• Which test must be performed for females before initiating nPEP?
• Prophylaxis is indicated in pubertal individuals but not prepubertal for which reason?
• Which ethical principle emphasizes respecting a patient’s right to make their own decisions?
• What is a subpoena?
• Competency is defined as which concept?
• In the core membership of SART/MDT, what does LE stand for?
• What is the maximum window, in hours, to take emergency contraception after intercourse?
• Which infection is treated with penicillin according to the material?
• Arraignment
• At what age can a child typically rate pain?
• Which item assesses the ability to assign personal values to risks and benefits?
• Bite wound treatment
• Which term is considered inappropriate and confusing in clinical discussions about female genital modification?
• In STI testing, the window period refers to the time after exposure during which tests may be negative even if infection is present.
• Vestibular papillae are most commonly observed in which population due to hormonal changes?
• In the context of a suspected sexual abuse exam, pain with urination is most likely associated with injury to which anatomic area?
• Gonorrhea presentation in infants and children across sites is best described as
• Tanner stage V in girls is described as
• Which feature best describes Tanner Stage III in boys?
• Which of the following is a domain within the forensic nursing standards of professional performance?
• Plan B is not effective once which event has begun?
• Syphilis symptoms vary depending on:
• Discharge education should be provided at approximately which reading level?
• NCA is the _____ of the CAC
• What is the priority action for assessing STIs in a recently evaluated patient?
• How should SANE handle technical language in testimony?
• The medical record is independent of the FE kit and not submitted with evidence to LE.
• Which description matches Tanner stage IV in boys?
• Which psychosocial stage is associated with identity versus confusion?
• Which sexually transmitted infection can be treated with a single dose of antibiotics?
• Which description corresponds to Tanner stage IV in girls?
• How should fingernail evidence be collected to minimize contamination?
• Penile swab collection should include sampling which anatomical areas?
• Which item assesses the ability to use logic and rationality?
• What is the rationale for limiting swab collection to avoid sample dilution?
• How should matted hair be collected to preserve the evidence?
• What type of hair is present at Tanner Stage I in boys?
• To correctly assess pregnancy risk after sexual assault, which question is most relevant?
• Which of the following is not a non-sexual HIV transmission risk listed?
• Which statement about herpes infections best describes transmission and symptom presence?
• Vestibular papillae are described as which?
• A standardized medical forensic record retention schedule for organizations and providers to follow exists.
• When gathering a history from a patient who may have experienced sexual assault, how many questions should you ask at a time?
• When revoking authorization for records release under HIPAA, how must the revocation be communicated?
• Which FGM Type is described as clitoridectomy with removal of clitoral glans and the prepuce?
• Which group is explicitly identified as potentially having contact with the perpetrator and thus should be considered by the SANE?
• What measure helps ensure safety of both patient and staff during the exam?
• Which term involves a formal protest to exclude improper evidence?
• Blunt force injuries are typically caused by contact with what?
• Which describes FGM Type IB?
• Among youth, which group is at highest risk for suicide?
• During the frog-leg positioning used for pediatric examinations, which adjustment increases comfort?
• Bite wounds can be _____ for potential _____
• Patient behaviors should be framed as coping behaviors rather than which?
• In the context of pregnancy assessment, which question should the SANE include?
• Which statement best describes secondary syphilis?
• Which trio of conditions is listed as not a concern for SA examination and laboratory work?
• What is the consequence of delayed or missed doses of nPEP?
• What type of hair is present at Tanner Stage I in girls?
• Which action best ensures safety of the patient during the exam through equipment management?
• In the stress response spectrum, which term describes a submissive or appeasing reaction to threat?
• Ectropion cervix is characterized by what appearance?
• Which of the following is NOT a principle of Trauma-Informed Care?
• Which of the following are causes of petechiae?
• Strangulation types (3)
• Which statement best describes HIPAA in relation to patient information in clinical practice?
• Which of the following findings would raise concern for sexual assault?
• Which factor is associated with an increased risk of HIV acquisition during sexual assault?
• Which statement best describes a CCR goal?
• Restricted reporting provides survivor access to certain services without triggering a police report.
• In men, gonorrhea can present with which symptom?
• FE kit contents and the medical record are kept separate.
• In vaginal evidence collection, which anatomical location is preferred for sampling?
• Which infection is abbreviated as Trichomonas in the context of the listed STIs?
• During specimen collection, what type of touch should be used to minimize skin cell contamination?
• Why do prepubescent patients have a higher risk of injury for musculoskeletal injuries?
• For DFSA blood collection, what is the maximum volume and the maximum time since collection?
• Which emergency contraception method is nearly 100% effective?
• How is erythema best described?
• What is the best practice regarding deviations from standard procedures?
• Which option correctly names the stage associated with initiative and guilt?
• What med order is recommended for exposure management?
• NPEP can be toxic to which organ systems, necessitating baseline labs?
• Are LE images after sexual assault protected under HIPAA?
• What is the risk of contracting Trichomonas through sexual assault?
• In men, Chlamydia trachomatis infection commonly presents with which symptoms?
• Assent is most closely associated with which concept?
• For uncircumcised individuals undergoing penile swab collection, what specific adjustment is recommended?
• How is the evaluation described in the care model?
• To reduce bias in assessments for individuals with disabilities, exam rooms should be kept free of what?
• Chlamydia from mother can persist up to how long in the patient?
• Which statement best describes the SANE scope regarding diagnosis and treatment?
• If a patient has a positive RPR, what is the next test to perform?
• Gonorrhea treatment commonly involves
• Informed consent is best described as which of the following?
• Which item is used to determine if a patient can communicate a choice?
• Which practice best supports the integrity of the SANE examination documentation?
• In a multi-site forensic collection, what is the recommended action to prevent cross-contamination when moving between locations?
• Gonorrhea occurs at higher rates in which group?
• What is the most appropriate method for toxicology testing in this context?
• Prophylaxis in pubertal individuals is intended to reduce infection risk in adolescents who engage in what type of sex?
• Which statement is supported by the material regarding male circumcision and HIV risk?
• During packaging of evidence, which protective equipment should the packager wear?
• Medical record of SA patients should be stored for how long?
• What safety measure should always occur for sexual assault survivors in clinical care?
• What is a symptom of early latent syphilis?
• Which finding is listed as a sign or symptom of an inguinal hernia?
• Vicarious trauma can manifest in which domains?
• Which brain structure is responsible for flight, fight, freeze, and fawn responses?
• What is the correct order of mouth swabs in this protocol?
• Under Federal Rule 704, opinions on the ultimate issue are
• During photography of injuries in sexual assault cases, the SANE should consider the direction of which factor?
• What is the top priority in forensic nursing practice?
• Restricted reporting allows a survivor to keep the assault confidential and not involve law enforcement.
• In pediatric forensic assessments, puberty milestones help clinicians determine pubertal development stage. Which option reflects this correctly?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of recording DNA evidence in the exam report?
• Physical safety can be assured through ______.
• Children may be brought in for care by which individual?
• Which infection has the highest listed transmission risk via sexual assault?
• Tanner stage V in girls is characterized by?
• Discharge paperwork includes
• Which statement best describes acute trauma responses in children?
• Which of the following correctly matches FGM Type IIIB with the involved structures?
• Which infection is NOT listed among the reportable STIs in the US according to the source material?
• HPV-related cancers can include which of the following sites?
• Demonstrative evidence is evidenced by what?
• Which term best describes suction-induced skin markings commonly known as a hickey?
• Documentation should include what two elements expressed by the patient about their experience during the event?
• Who can perform MSE?
• In secondary syphilis, the diffuse rash commonly involves which areas?
• In primary HSV infection, which statement best describes duration?
• Which statement best reflects pediatric documentation considerations?
• A known trigger for HSV outbreaks is:
• For a Native American patient living on a reservation, who should be notified for coordinated care?
• Chlamydia trachomatis infection can involve the rectum causing which symptoms?
• What is considered first-line emergency contraception?
• Discharge instructions should be written at which reading level?
• The role of the SANE is not to ______ whether or not a crime occurred.
• QA includes which of the following?
• Toxicology samples should be collected at ______ time relative to other forensic and medical samples.
• What happens when an objection is sustained?
• What is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the United States?
• Which criterion states the testimony is the product of reliable methods
• Bruises do not ___.
• Which statement best describes the outcome identification domain?
• A positive RPR result is most consistent with presumptive diagnosis of which infection?
• How should peer review be characterized?
• HT victims may be accompanied by whom?
• In documenting findings, what should the SANE note regarding DNA evidence?
• The ADA framework in patient care is designed to do what with patient autonomy?
• When describing medical forensic history to court, the SANE should
• What color-coded tube is used for DFSA blood collection?
• Which is an example of demonstrative evidence?
• What is the estimated risk of contracting chlamydia through sexual assault?
• What does ALS stand for in the forensic examination context?
• Petechiae and bruising indicate the need to prioritize which body-system assessment?
• Direct examination
• In suspected strangulation, internal injury suspicion should be based on which factor?
• Which ethical principle concerns keeping patient information confidential?
• Which changes characterize Tanner Stage III in boys?
• The FE kit should be submitted with the medical record to LE.
• What is the primary purpose of the medical screening exam in DFSA?
• In evaluating physical development during a pediatric SA exam, which factors should be considered?
• In documenting injuries from sexual assault, which practice is essential?
• Which statement best describes the fundamental mechanism of hanging strangulation?
• Which of the following can be collected from fingernails as evidence?
• Testimonial evidence is evidence that is seen, heard, known.
• Children under the age of how many are not usually able to provide a detailed history?
• Which item assesses the patient's ability to understand informed consent?
• Biological evidence is a type of what?
• In the evaluation room, what safety feature is essential to ensure safety?
• Which is a component of TIC approach related to symptom recognition?
• Azithromycin is used to treat which infection?
• Which options are considered categories of child abuse?
• All MDTs include?
• During history gathering, where should the interviewer sit relative to the patient?
• HPV warts in children are most commonly located in which areas?
• Informed consent for photography during forensic examination should address which aspects?
• Be consistent in approach and what action when deviation occurs?
• What can Alternate Light Source (ALS) can help visualize that is not seen under normal lighting?
• Which statement best describes what the written narrative should include about the perpetrator?
• During the school-age years, which psychosocial stage centers on developing competence and productivity?
• During an SA trial, the SANE should limit testimony to injuries related to the sexual assault because including unrelated injuries can confuse the jury.
• Penile swab sampling should include sampling of which areas?
• Assent is best described as
• What does DFSA stand for in forensic contexts?
• Which statement about the medical screening exam is correct?
• Quantifying the risk of contracting an STI through sexual assault has historically been which of the following?
• Which packaging material should be avoided for forensic evidence because it can retain moisture and degrade evidence?
• Which treatment option is commonly used as a single-dose regimen for early syphilis?
• Which combination describes penile involvement in trichomoniasis?
• Documentary evidence is best described as what?
• Which statement best describes perinatal transmissibility of the listed STIs?
• Which medication is considered first-line emergency contraception?
• Which assessment should be performed for all patients in this clinical context?
• Which changes define Tanner Stage II in girls?
• MSE stands for
• Which combination describes Tanner Stage II in girls?
• Consent relates to the idea that all patients have the right to
• Length of time for strangulation effects to occur is typically what?
• Which term refers to a court order to produce medical-forensic records or photographs?
• H&P stands for
• For DFSA urine collection, what is the maximum volume and the maximum time since collection?
• Which statement about HPV risk in children is correct?
• To increase personal safety during a forensic examination (FE), what should be done?
• Condylomas refer to which manifestation?
• In women with Chlamydia trachomatis infection, cervicitis may present with which of the following findings?
• Which changes characterize Tanner Stage III in boys?
• In young children, which factors contribute to a higher lethality risk from strangulation?
• In the RTS acute phase, which symptom is described?
• Which HPV strains are considered high risk (oncogenic)?
• Which antibiotic is listed for the treatment of gonorrhea in the material?
• Under Federal Rule 702, individuals may be qualified as an expert based on
• Documentation should include information about the surroundings of where the assault occurred if known.
• Which term describes the ability to make one’s own decision?
• The description of the patient during history taking should be limited to which type of data?
• Compared with a light touch, a heavy touch during specimen collection is associated with an increased amount of what?
• When bite wounds have broken skin, which considerations should be taken?
• Being a member of a SART does not mean the SANE _____ the SART.
• What is the length of nPEP treatment?
• Which age range aligns with Stage II (Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt)?
• Which two antibiotics are listed as treatments for chlamydia?
• Which sentence completes: 'Once information is released to the requestor, it is no longer ______'?
• Emergency contraception should be provided within how many hours after assault?
• TIC approach (4)
• Patterned injury example is which of the following?
• Emergency contraception is less effective in which group?
• The vaginal vault comprises which structures?
• What do gray top tubes contain?
• The primary HSV infection is usually characterized by:
• Which medication is used to treat trichomoniasis?
• What is the recommended procedure for trace evidence collection?
• Which symptom is explicitly listed as one of the four PTSD symptom categories?
• In Erikson's psychosocial theory, adolescence corresponds to which stage?
• Under FRE 701, which rule governs non-expert opinion testimony
• Which term best describes the pinpoint hemorrhagic spots seen in petechiae?
• Under HIPAA, which is described as a noncovered entity?
• Which term refers to two forms: procedural and distributive?
• If a patient declines a step in the assessment, what may be asked about the reason for declining?
• Syphilis is caused by which type of organism?
• Stage II occurs in which age range?
• Which statement best describes demonstrative evidence usage?
• In the RTS acute phase, which of the following sensory or memory changes may be observed?
• Pectinate line is visible with
• Which option best characterizes Tanner stage V in girls?
• How many days should pass before STI testing to allow antibodies to develop after exposure?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six ethical principles commonly cited in SANE practice?
• Which infection has sampling sites genital/anal/pharyngeal?
• Which method is considered the gold standard for documenting forensic findings in pediatric examinations?
• Which criterion states that the expert must have applied principles and methods to facts of the case
• Photos are not automatically shared with LE.
• Tertiary syphilis can involve which organ systems?
• Evidence swabs in strangulation cases should be collected from where?
• Which psychosocial stage is associated with initiating activities and exploration?
• ______ is not needed for a written authorization for medical records release
• What is the maximum number of hours after sexual assault that emergency contraception can be used?
• Which agency must be notified regarding STIs in pediatric patients?
• What is the recommended technique for collecting anal evidence?
• Which antibiotic form is listed in the material as a potential treatment option?
• Executive function is primarily associated with which brain region?
• In DFSA cases, a patient incapacitated by substances on their own accord is unable to give valid consent.
• Manual strangulation
• Which criterion is part of qualifying a witness as an expert?
• Which factor related to the assailant's HIV status increases transmission risk during sexual assault?
• Vertical transmission of syphilis can occur up to how many years after birth?
• Patterned injury examples
• Which items should be photographed as evidentiary findings related to the assault?
• How are most sexually transmitted infections transmitted?
• Which statement best describes Tanner Stage II in girls?
• American Indian and Alaska Native tribal populations may have their own what?
• The amygdala plays which role in trauma responses?
• Which age range is typically considered the teenage years?
• Informed consent includes which components?
• Which of the following is NOT a reason why children may not disclose abuse?
• Which statement best describes the residual and child hearsay exception?
• CCR stands for Coordinated Community Response. What is its primary purpose?
• Unconsciousness can occur in as little as how many seconds during strangulation?
• If you didn't document something on the form, what should you write?
• FTA-ABS stands for which of the following?
• Which of the following is a neuro-related effect of strangulation?
• Metronidazole is indicated for treating which infection?
• Which of the following is NOT a standard classification of injuries?
• Flagyl (metronidazole) consideration includes which of the following effects?
• During assessment, which statement best describes the impact of a nurse's own values, attitudes, and beliefs?
• In pediatric patients, Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection is most commonly:
• Pectinate line synonym
• Which of the following is not a listed accommodation category for pediatric exams?
• In DFSA evaluations, what is the priority assessment?
• Which option best lists non-sexual HIV transmission risks?
• Trichomoniasis is nonviral and is described as which of the following?
• Which signs in the abdomen are associated with potential internal injury?
• For significant vaginal trauma requiring evaluation after a sexual assault, which specialists should be consulted?
• Which findings are commonly associated with blunt force injuries?
• Which elements should be included in the emergent assessment after a sexual assault?
• What is the leading substance implicated in drug-facilitated sexual assault (DFSA)?
• Which age range corresponds to psychosocial Stage I (Trust vs. Mistrust)?
• What are the typical features and timing of primary syphilis?
• Which description defines a jury trial?
• During a traumatic experience, short-term memory can be affected due to interruption in which brain structure?
• Tangible evidence refers to what?
• Locard's Exchange Principle describes cross-transfer of evidence when contact occurs. Which option correctly states this principle?
• After a positive RPR, which test confirms syphilis infection?
• What is the reported risk range of pregnancy from sexual assault?
• Which is a reason that children may not disclose abuse?
• Which change occurs in Tanner Stage II for boys?
• Peer review is part of which process?
• In prepubertal assessment, abnormalities are confirmed in which position?
• Pediatric SANEs must recognize the difference between FI and taking a history.
• What happens when an objection is overruled?
• Which description characterizes Tanner stage III in girls?
• How can a documented HIV negative status influence legal investigations if seroconversion occurs later?
• FGM plus penetrative sexual abuse increases risk of what?
• Why is it important to limit testimony to SA-related injuries during court proceedings?
• Which statement best represents a hearsay exception?
• After a primary HSV infection, outbreaks are typically:
• If HIV testing indicates exposure at the time of evaluation after sexual assault, which prophylaxis should be considered?
• A patient is SA'd 3 weeks ago with fatigue, nausea, dark urine, and stool color changes. Which hepatitis is most concerning?
• Which infection is ceftriaxone commonly used to treat according to the material?
• In the forensic nursing process, outcomes must be measurable.
• How many mechanisms can contribute to immediate death from strangulation?
• Greatest concentration of sample is obtained by using the _______ number of swabs.
• HPV-related cancers can develop in which of the following sites?
• What is the method to test stability of a patient's decision making?
• Which statement accurately describes Tanner stage IV in girls?
• Which of the following is a breathing-related change associated with strangulation?
• Toxicology testing after ingestion can be influenced by delays in collection.
• Cross examination
• Herpes simplex virus is transmitted through
• Which domain includes promoting evidence-based practice and research?
• What is the posterior fourchette?
• Why is a light touch recommended during specimen collection?
• The planning phase should be individualized and holistic.
• Which statement accurately distinguishes between mental capacity and competency?
• Core members of a SART/MDT typically include which roles?
• For bite wounds, which option describes a forensic collection that may be performed?
• Which term describes a legal determination that a patient is unable to provide consent for themselves?
• NOT a TIC component?
• CODIS stands for which of the following?
• Which practice best protects patient identity during the SANE exam?
• Which description matches FGM Type I?
• Lichen sclerosus is best described as which of the following?
• Implementation in care models emphasizes collaboration with an interdisciplinary team and utilization of which resources?
• Which nonviral STI is most prevalent?
• Which statement accurately describes Tanner stage V in boys?
• Which site is NOT typically listed for HPV warts in pediatric patients?
• Law enforcement presence during history gathering can affect which legal principle?
• What is the primary purpose of the forensic interview in a pediatric sexual assault evaluation?
• Baseline labs before starting nPEP are recommended because nPEP may be toxic to several organs. Which option lists a non-target organ that would not typically be monitored for toxicity?
• Why is a physical assessment performed for all patients in pediatric sexual assault evaluations?
• Which term describes acting in good faith and for the benefit of the patient?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an example of documenting clothing condition?
• Locard's Exchange Principle is best described as:
• Best action if a SANE feels threatened during an evaluation is to
• Battle sign refers to bruising located behind which part of the ear?
• In a blood draw, which order should samples be collected for toxicology, DNA, and medical testing?
• Documentation should include which information to avoid implying the patient was asked leading questions?
• What is the recommended action for form sections with no information?
• What is the name of psychosocial Stage I?
• In a pediatric assault evaluation, which finding raises concern for strangulation?
• During which period is the risk of HSV outbreak increased?
• Cognitive distortion of the perpetrator refers to which belief?
• Which strategy is most effective for collaborating with an interdisciplinary team in SANE-P practice?
• Which factor from the list is a reason children may not disclose because the offender manipulates the child?
• Chlamydia trachomatis is what type of infection and typical presentation?
• Which describes FGM Type II?
• Which hair type is present at Tanner Stage I for boys?
• Which statement best describes secondary prevention?
• What is the recommended window for short-term follow-up after the initial assessment?
• Is there a universal standard recommendation for STI testing when a patient presents for treatment?
• What is the recommended swab collection sequence described?
• What is the maximum time after a spontaneous abortion to obtain a copper IUD?
• Trauma can directly impact which domains?
• What does direct evidence do?
• Which mechanism explains genital herpes in a child with a history of oral herpes?
• SANE assessment includes palpation of body surfaces to detect what?
• Which mechanism is listed as a potential contributor to immediate death in strangulation?
• Which finding is most commonly observed in adolescents due to hormonal changes?
• What is the risk of contracting gonorrhea through sexual assault?
• Which changes define Tanner Stage II in boys?
• Which combination is typical of acute HIV infection?
• Why is it important to restrict access and keep the exam room locked during a pediatric SANE exam?
• Which term refers to a court order that requires appearance and testimony?
• What type of disclosures warrant STI testing?
• Which ethical principle obligates clinicians to avoid causing harm?
• Which of the following is an indicator for a broader medical evaluation beyond forensic evidence collection?
• What is the recommended age range for HPV vaccination?
• What is the maximum time (hours) for a DFSA urine sample after collection?
• Which statement about the complete medical history in a pediatric forensic evaluation is accurate?
• When should NAAT testing for HIV be performed after starting nPEP?
• Pregnant women taking nPEP have an increased risk of which adverse outcome?
• Redness and swelling nonspecific finding should be photographed to help determine if acute or normal variant.
• Which statement describes CCR goal focus for victims?
• Which item is listed as a sign or symptom of an inguinal hernia?
• Which statement is most accurate regarding delays in identifying substances after ingestion?
• Which of the following is listed as a trace evidence example?
• An important consideration for SARTs?
• In the context of assessing potential pregnancy risk, which Tanner stage is most relevant?
• Chlamydia trachomatis infection is usually which of the following?
• When should treatment for syphilis be initiated?
• SANE must be aware of and responsive to which group who may have had contact with the perpetrator?
• Which statement describes a sentence?
• Which option accurately lists the eight reportable STIs in the US as given?
• In unconscious patient scenario, which is best according to policy?
• Following non-occupational post-exposure prophylaxis (nPEP) start, when should you have ID follow-up?
• Which of the following is NOT a standard domain in the forensic nursing practice model?
• FGM Type IV refers to which description?
• Which option best summarizes the concept that consent is about a patient's rights?
• Which statement best describes the timing of toxicology sample collection relative to other samples?
• What does MRR stand for in SANE practice?
• What is a primary consideration regarding the impact of sexual assault on a pediatric patient?
• Plan B is best described as which medication?
• Which set correctly lists the eight reportable STIs named in the source?
• Acute reactions to trauma in children typically present as which of the following?
• Original photos (even if bad) should be deleted.
• FGM Type IIA involves removal of which structure?
• What approach helps reduce reluctance of pediatric patients to participate in photo documentation?
• Within 72 hours after assault, which method is preferred for emergency contraception over pills?
• A complete medical history for a pediatric forensic evaluation should include which domains?
• Indirect evidence is best described as which of the following?
• Prepubescent victims of sexual abuse typically show physical signs in what percentage?
• What additive combination is contained in gray top tubes used for DFSA blood collection?
• Which FGM type would be described as removal of all external genital tissues (clitoris, labia minora, and labia majora)?
• During history collection, which types of questions should be avoided?
• Which finding would most strongly indicate abnormal results in a sexual assault assessment?
• Which statement accurately differentiates peer review from case review in SANE practice?
• Don't leave ______ on form.
• HPV warts in infants under two years are most likely due to which transmission route?
• Which term refers to the formal protest raised in court to disallow testimony or evidence violating rules?
• To maintain trust, what obligation should a SANE disclose?
• What describes a plea agreement?
• Which option lists the conditions that are not concerns for SA examination and laboratory work?
• If a court orders records, what should a SANE do to ensure validity?
• Which statement reflects cognitive distortion of the perpetrator?
• Which statement best describes Plan B's mechanism?
• What is considered the gold standard documentation method for forensic exams in prepubertal patients?
• What is the main purpose of facility safety audits in health care settings?
• Which stage is active during early school years (5-11 years)?
• Which describes FGM Type II B?
• Waiting a recommended period after exposure before STI testing helps ensure accuracy by allowing the body to develop antibodies.
• Bench trial
• Specific questions with descriptive terms are which type of questions?
• In MDTs, which component is explicitly included?
• Informed consent includes which two forms?
• A negative drug test result does not necessarily indicate that drugging did not occur.
• In pediatric cases of sexual assault, which type of symptoms may begin around the time of the assault?
• Which symptom cluster is typical of acute HIV infection?
• The stage of Industry vs Inferiority typically occurs during which years?
• Which FGM type is defined as removal of labia minora only?
• Which option describes something not part of SART collaborative processes?
• What does a subpoena duces tecum require?
• When should blood be refrigerated after collection to preserve integrity?
• HIV transmission risk from oral-genital contact is described as which level?
• In chlamydia infection among infants and children, which statement is most accurate?
• Gunshots
• In DFSA investigations, emesis is collected for which type of analysis?
• Disclosing findings to patient and family may evoke which feeling?
• Which statement defines an excited utterance in forensic interviews?
• Which of the following is a PTSD symptom category?
• Under which lighting condition is an alternative light source (ALS) less effective at revealing findings?
• Which concept is particularly important for STD care in transgender patients with surgically constructed vagina due to vaginal fragility?
• In the forensic nursing process, which step logically follows assessment?
• Lichen sclerosus is best described as which?
• Do bruises blanch when pressed?
• Which antibiotic regimen is recommended for chlamydia prevention after genital-to-genital exposure?
• In suspected strangulation, which statement is incorrect about how to assess injury risk?
• Under Federal Rule 701, if a witness is not testifying as an expert, the testimony in the form of an opinion must be
• Vertical transmission is most likely for which neonatal infection among the following?
• In toxicology testing, which specimen shows drugs for a longer window of detection?
• Which is the psychosocial Stage II conflict?
• Which statement about using two moistened sterile swabs is true?
• Which are the four categories of evidence?
• Why are referrals important in the forensic SANE-P process?
• Which term describes suction-induced skin marking commonly called a hickey?
• Threats observed in a forensic interview can be which of the following?
• Which statement best describes cognitive development typical of 4-year-olds?
• Veracity in professional ethics refers to which concept?
• What is a key responsibility of a SANE?
• Which statement best differentiates FGM Type II from Type I?
• Discharge documentation includes what elements related to evidence and follow-up?
• Which statement best describes child neglect?
• What best describes the relationship between direct and indirect evidence?
• Proactive DFSA indicates what about the patient?
• Which describes FGM Type IA?
• Plan B works by which mechanism?